Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 26.06.2025 04:38
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Saepe maiores nam debitis sequi corporis quasi quasi dolores.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Eum et amet quam est autem adipisci distinctio.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.